I seem to remember reading some discussion of this spelling in an essay by
(I think) Stephen Heath.  My memory is vague but, as I recall, this spelling
follows Klein's original use.  Either the essay didn't go into the reasons
for Klein's oringinal adoption of this spelling or I've forgotten them.  My
copy of Peter Gay's Freud Reader uses the 'ph' spelling throughout the
essays but that may be an imposition of the translator

My OED defines the term as a variant of 'fantasy' but doesn't attribute any
different meaning to it.  Personally I've always regarded this as an attempt
by psychoanalytically inclined theorists to mystify their own practices in
order to fortify them against sceptical inquiry from outside  but then maybe
I'm just very cynical.

Mike Chopra-Gant
Goldsmiths
University of London

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----- Original Message -----
From: Scott Andrew Hutchins <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Saturday, December 02, 2000 12:06 AM
Subject: phantasy


>
> What is the difference between fantasy and phantasy?  I see many
> commentators on film write of "phantasies" and L. Frank Baum uses it in
> the subtitle of one of his plays, but I have never found a definition or
> reason for the alternate spelling.
>
> Scott
>
> ----
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